Now why do we say: My feelings are my private property. Because only I am directly aware of my pain. But what does that mean. I suppose to be aware of pain means to feel it, & isn't it ‘my’ pain because I feel it. So what does it mean to say only I feel my pain. We have, so far, not given any sense to the phrase I feel his pain (except in the sense I feel the same kind of pain or perhaps I vividly imagine his pain) & therefore no use to the phrase I feel my pain either. (I don't say that we couldn't arrange for a sense for these phrases.) We could of course use the proposition ‘A person is directly aware of his pain only & indirectly aware of the other man's’ as a grammatical rule [Bestimmung] to the effect that if I say of N. “N. is directly aware of pain” this means || is to mean, ‘N. has pain’ whereas ‘N. is indirectly aware of pain’ is to mean: ‘N. is aware of the fact that someone else has pain’. (And this I'm inclined to call the healthy use of these phrases).