You say: A grown-up “Surely I can moan with toothache & I can moan without toothache, so why shouldn't the child be able it be so with the child? Of course I only see
& hear the child's behaviour but from my own experience I know what toothache is (like) I know toothache apart from behaviour & I am led to believe that the others sometimes have the pains I have”. – The first sentence already is misleading: It isn't the question whether I can moan with & without toothache, but the point is that I distinguish ‘moaning with toothache’ & ‘moaning without toothache’ & now we can't go on to say that of course in the child we make the same distinction. In fact we don't. We teach the child to use the words “I have toothache” to replace its moans, & this was how I myself || too was taught the expression. How do I know that I have learnt the word toothache to mean what they wanted me to express? I ought to say I believe I have toothache?
     Now one can moan because one has pains or, or e.g., one can moan on the stage. How do I know that the child, small as it is, doesn't already act & in this case I teach it to mean by ‘toothache’ something I don't want || intend it to mean?